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Originally Posted by KenV
Not trying to be controversial, but how do you figure the Psalm was referring to The Bible when The Bible did not yet exist and would not for another thousand years or so?
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The Bible as we know it, yes. The Old Testament describes on a regular basis how people responded to the reading of God's Word, and Jesus went into the temple or synagogue on a regular basis to read the Scrolls. That's all the Bible they had.
Psalm 19 describes God's Law, Statutes, Commandments, etc. David already had parts of the Bible--the first 5 books for sure and probably Joshua and Judges also; He was writing the book of Psalms. In his day that was all the they had. It wasn't until a number of (hunndred) years (I should know when it was, but can't even think of the name of the council that did this) after the Resurrection that a council of scholars got together and with a lot of prayer asking God for wisdom and guidance selected the 66 books that compose the Bible as we know it today.
Quote:
Originally Posted by jack404
psalms refer to Jesus a few times eh ..
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The Psalms do indeed refer to Jesus. OT people looked forward to seeing Jesus, just as we look back on His coming. There is a presentation of the Life of Christ in the Psalms, alternating New Testament readings with passages from the Psalms. We sing the Psalms, so with a good group it sounds good. It's fun to do, too.